Vous l’avez bien compris, l’analgésie loco-régionale est pour moi le moyen le plus intéressant de lutter contre la douleur post-opératoire. Je vais maintenant partager avec vous mes pratiques concernant les antalgiques courants.
Premier cas de figure : chirurgie simplex, récupération rapide.
Je demande à ce que la voie veineuse périphérique soit obturée. L’utilisation de valves directement branchées sur le cathéter comme le BD Q-Syte facilitent grandement l’adhésion des équipes. Je prescris alors des antalgiques per os en commençant par une association de paracétamol et codéïne. Je prescris aussi souvent un AINS en cure courte comme le kétoprofène. Le kétoprofène est là en deuxième ligne si l’analgésie est insuffisante avec paracétamol/codéïne. Si le ketoprofène ne parait pas être un choix judicieux, c’est là que je prescris du nefopam en perfusion de 30 minutes en recours. Si l’analgésie est inefficace, c’est que le patient ne tolère pas la codéïne ou qu’il se passe quelque chose d’anormal, il est alors temps de réfléchir.
Deuxième cas de figure : chirurgie « simple à intermédiaire » mais voie per os indisponible.
Là il y a clairement une place pour le paracétamol en IV. Le kétoprofène en IV est intéressant en cure courte. Ensuite viennent les morphiniques. Il y a alors deux solutions pour moi : la PCA de morphine avec du droperidol ou la SAP de tramadol avec du droperidol. (droperidol : 50 microg/cc) Je commence toujours par des posologies modérées de tramadol (genre 200 mg/jour) que je diminue encore chez la personne âgée et/ou insuffisante rénale. Dès que le relais per os est possible on le fait !
Troisième cas de figure : chirurgie lourde et voie per os indisponible
Ici j’espère qu’il y a une analgésie loco-régionale. Ensuite je prescris du paracétamol en IV (même si les preuves sont minces, le rapport bénéfice/risque me parait bon). Si le patient bénéficie du contrôle de son analgésie péridurale (PCEA) on peut choisir d’administrer ensuite au coup par coup un morphinique (ex CINQ mg de morphine en IVL dans une unité de surveillance continue). Si le cathéter péridural est reliée à une simple SAP, la PCA morphine est alors un bon choix. J’associe au paracétamol et à la morphine une SAP de ketamine à 0,05 mg/kg/heure (ou poso proche facile à retenir : 1 microg/kg/min) pour les premières 48h.
Voilà, grosso modo, mes pratiques. Par contre, les trucs que je ne comprends pas :
1) Pourquoi associer tramadol et morphine ? Update décembre 2014 : cette méta-analyse à lire : Br. J. Anaesth.-2014-Martinez-bja-tramadol-morphine-meta-analyse
2) Pourquoi cet amour du tramadol (que je vois à toutes les sauces), la morphine on connait bien non ?
3) Pourquoi ces caisses de nefopam dans des perfs post-op ? Danger des incompatibilités avec les cocktails dans les perfs, PK/PD peu rationnel…
4) La peur des AINS est fondée mais elle est souvent exagérée. On gagnerait à se méfier un peu plus des effets sérotoninergiques du tramadol et des effets atropiniques du nefopam.
5) Pourquoi on administre en perfusion ou en s/c quand la voie per os est disponible ? (la morphine ça existe aussi per os)
6) Pourquoi on fait des s/c de morphine quand on peut administrer en IV ? (en soins continus, intensifs ou en réa par exemple)
Ma conclusion sur l’analgésie post-op est la suivante :
oui à l’analgésie multimodale non aux cocktails d’effets indésirables
P.S. le site du service d’anesthésie de l’hôpital Foch est intéressant
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5 réponses sur « Les antalgiques post-opératoires, partie 2 »
[…] : la suite sur les cocktails d’antalgiques est à […]
Je lis tardivement ce billet, tu disais que tu allais le faire mais j’ai pas trop surveillé sa parution sur le blog.
Je me pose un peu les mêmes questions ( dans le cadre général, notamment celui des urgences, du pré-hospitalier, mais aussi en post-op et en réa ) concernant le Tramadol et surtout l’association Tramadol + Morphine, mais je rêve surtout qu’un pharmacologue / anesth / médecin de la douleur quelconque trouve un jour une réponse à ma grande question:
Quel est le comportement d’un agoniste partiel ( ex: Tramadol ) des récepteurs « mu » de la morphine, qui va donc pendant toute la durée d’action du médicament stimuler les dits récepteurs, en cas d’apport de morphine juste après, en quasi-concomitance ?
– Va-t-il gentiment se barrer du récepteur « mu » et laisser la morphine jouer pleinement son rôle antalgique, dix fois supérieur au siens ?
– Certains récepteurs « mu » vont-ils toujours être occupés aléatoirement par du Tramadol ( malgré une affinité pour les récepteurs mu 6000 fois plus faible que la morphine, il était là avant ), et ainsi empêcher parfois la morphine de s’y fixer, diminuant donc l’effet antalgique du palier 3 ?
Plus généralement, si on met deux médicaments en simultané qui ont le même type d’effets sauf que l’un est 10 fois plus efficace que l’autre sur les mêmes récepteurs, où est l’antalgie multi-modale là dedans ? Le Tramadol est-il juste là pour son effet d’inhibition de recapture de la sérotonine ? Si oui, son effet sera plus adapté aux douleurs chroniques qu’aux douleurs aigües, cela mériterait-il de reconsidérer sa place aux urgences, ou je ne comprends vraiment pas son intérêt si on met de la morphine derrière ?
Bref, la place de ce médicament dans l’arsenal thérapeutique des douleurs aigües reste une énigme pour moi. Tant que la morphine est potentiellement indiquée je ne vois pas pourquoi on utiliserait le Tramadol.
Le paracétamol ou le néfopam sont d’authentiques associations synergiques ( davantage le néfopam d’ailleurs ) avec la morphine, on a pas besoin de chercher pour leur trouver une indication dans la co-antalgie palier 1 + palier 3.
Avis aux éclairés et autres défenseurs du Tramadol, si vous m’éclairez sur ces point je me coucherai moins bête !
moi je suis complètement d’accord avec toi je trouve peu de place au tramadol
mon utilisation du tramadol c’est ça :
– per os lorsque le patient est stabilisé si il y a encore quelques phénomènes douloureux (=en backup)
– per os pour des douleurs modérées surtout si le patient n’apprécie pas la codéïne
– en IV quand il n’y a pas/plus de PCA et qu’il y a encore une voie périph pour éviter une s/c (mais bof quoi)
sinon, je fais tout comme je décris dans le billet donc plutot paracétamol+PCA morphine+ketamine à la seringue continue si la chirurgie est majeure et qu’il n’y a pas de péridurale ou d’ALR
Hello,
Ok pour les effets anticholinergiques du nefopam. Mais qu’entends-tu par sa pK-pD (que je ne connais pas ?).
Pourquoi préférer paracetamol+tramadol plutôt que paracetamol+morphine ?
Sinon une remarque pour le sujet âgé, retour d’expérience en direct-live de mon semestre en géronto : ici le tramadol (et le nefopam) sont « interdits » pour leurs effets confusogènes importants.
La gestion de la douleur nociceptive aiguë en salle c’est paracetamol PO / IR (max 3g/j… mais je n’ai pas saisi tout le rationnel, surtout chez les costauds) et si insuffisant morphine orale (oramorph par exemple). Si douleurs réfractaires et/ou SP la PCA est de prescription facile, IV ou SC (si pas de voie ou si SP), à petites doses initialement et jamais d’antiémétiques systématiques (neuroleptiques cachés, confusogènes).
des collègues m’ont expliqué que le nefopam marcherait comme un antibiotiques concentration dépendant, je ne connais pas de littérature précise là dessus
pour le tramadol je crois avoir écrit tramadol ou morphine mais je n’ai pas relu mon article, le choix se fera sans doute en fonction du contexte et/ou de la logisitique (sortie imminente ou pas)